mcq 1

Q1: stridor + hoarsness is clinical presentation of .........   ,  ..............

Q2 : abnormal crying + inspiratory stridor in ..........

Q3: normal crying + inspiratory stridor in ...............

Q4: persistent profuse ear discharge after acute otitis media is ............

...

Q5: otitic barotrauma occurs during airplane rapid ...........

( a- ascent b- descent )

Q6: T or F

In laryngeomalacia , inspiratory stridor starts soon after birth ( )

Q7: saddle nose is dt ......... , .......... ,..............

Q8: narrowest part in infantile larynx is ............

Q9: The early symptom of bell palsy is ..............

Q10 : The concept that the facial nerve supplies the auricle is related to

            a) ramsy hunt syndrome

            b) jugular foramen syndrome

            c) horner syndrome

            d) bell palsy

Q11: Unilateral polypoidal mass arising from lateral wall of nose in 55 years old man is ...........

Q12 : nasopharyngeal carcinoma cause horner syndrome as a result of infiltration of

            a) 3 th C.N

            b) 5 th C.N

            c ) 7 th C.N

            d)  cervical sympathatic chain

Q13: cyclic asphyxia is a symptom of ..............

Q14: 6 th nerve paralysis prenent in .......  , ..........   ,  .............

Q15: Chordoma is .....................  

Q16: Inhaled smooth small FB is commonley arrested in .................

Q17: most common site of T.B larynx is ...........

Q18: most common site of syphilis of larynx is ...........

Q19: most common site  of intubation granuloma is ............

Q20: trotter triads is ......., .......... ,  ............

Q21: moure sign means ............ and seen in ...............

Q22: the commenest nasal polyp is ...............

practical spots:

Q- spot :  fracture of nasal  bone

give 2 methods of ttttt

1- correction    2- closed reduction under general anesthesia    3- septorhinoplasty

Q- spot :   Septal perforation

give 2 symptoms

1- crusting    2- nasal obstruction       3- epistaxis

Q- spot :    foreign bodies in  nose

give 2 symptoms

1- unilateral nasal obstruction       2- unilateral nasal discharge (malodour)

Answers

Q1 : laryngoscleroma , croup(acute laryngeo tracheobronchitis)

Q2: congenital web

Q3: laryngeomalacia

Q4: Descent  وهى نازلة

Q5: Mastoiditis

Q6: false (x)  not sooooon but after few weeks

Q7: nasal trauma , septal abscess , overresection of septal cartilage

Q8: subglottis

Q9: pain of acute onset behind ear

نفتكرها ازاى : واحد ودنه بتوجعه نام وصحى الصبح لقى وشه معوج

Q10: (A) ramsy hunt syndrome

الوحيدة اللى ليها علاقة بالعصب السابع

Q11: inverted papilloma

Q12: Cervical sympathatic chain

Q13: Bilateral choanal atresia

Q14: nasopharyngeal carcinoma , petrositis , cavernous sinus thrombosis

Q15: locally malignant tumor للفهم فقط

Q16: Rt bronchus

Q17: post part of larynx

Q18: Ant part of larynx

Q19: subglottic region

intubation granuloma = scleroma

Q20: trotter triades in book

Q21: absence of laryngeal click and seen in hypopharyngeal tumors

Q22: ethamoidal polyp

thx

Amr Yakout Mohamed

nourhanabdelghany

يمكنك التعليق بدون تسجيل وفى النهايه اتمنى الا تحرمونى من تعليقاتك

exam 2 mcq

1. The following statement is true about the cornea:  

a) it constitutes one fourth of the outer coat of the eye ball

b) its average thickness at the center is 0.5 cm

c) the anterior corneal curvature is greater than the scleral curvature 

d) the endothelium can regenerate within 7 days when damaged

...

...

2. Aging can cause all of the following except:  

a) diminution of the accommodative power

b) macular degeneration

c) optic disc cupping 

d) epiphora

3. The following statement is true regarding a chalazion:  

a) usually it is painful

b) usually it should be opened through a skin incision

c) when it is large, it can cause diminution of visual acuity 

d) it usually points in front of the gray line

4. In phacomorphic glaucoma:  

a) There is a severe pain 

b) It responds well to pilocarpine

c) It is usually associated with a deep anterior chamber

d) There is always iridodonesis

5. A Maddox rod is used in front of the right eye of a patient (cylinders oriented vertically) while he views a spot light with the left eye. The patient reported seeing the spot light above the line. This patient is suffering from:  

a) exophoria

b) right hyperphoria 

c) esophoria

d) left hyperphoria

6.  If a patient presents in your office with a mature cataract, which test would not be helpful in deciding whether the patient should have a cataract surgery?

a) ultrasound

b) color vision testing

c) two-point discrimination

d) fluorescein angiography

7. Sympathetic ophthalmitis:

a) usually responds to adrenaline

b) can be prevented by pilocarpine

c) can be prevented by enucleation

d) can be treated by excision of the superior cervical ganglion

8. Staphylococcal infections in ophthalmology do not include:

a) blepharitis

b) corneal ulcer

c) giant papillary conjunctivitis

d) endophthalmitis

9. Considering the management of ptosis:

a) in paralytic ptosis, surgery should correct the ptosis before the strabismus

b) all congenital unilateral ptosis cases should be operated upon immediately

c) mechanical ptosis necessitates a levator resection surgery

d) frontalis suspension is needed if the levator function is absent

10. Applanation tonometry:

a) can be performed using a Schiotz tonometer

b) must be performed on a sitting patient

c) is inaccurate on eyes with abnormal scleral rigidity

d) is complementary to perimetry

11. A clear zone between the lesion and the limbus is not present in:

a) arcus senilis

b) catarrhal corneal ulcer

c) trachomatous pannus

d) Fleischer's ring

12. If the refraction of the right eye of a patient is minus two while that of the left eye is minus nine, the following statements are correct except:

a) the patient may complain of diplopia if he wears full-correction glasses

b) this diploia is uncrossed

c) his left eye might give the impression of a left convergent deviation

d) the visual acuity of his left eye might not exceed 6/24 even with full correction

13. Causes of localized conjunctival redness include:

a) acute viral conjunctivitis

b) phlyctenular keratoconjunctivitis

c) mucopurulent conjunctivitis

d) hay fever

14. Cover uncover test can be of benefit in the following conditions except:

a) diagnosis of esotropia

b) differentiation between unilateral and alternating strabismus

c) diagnosis of suppression

d) differentiation between true and false strabismus

15. The following disease is not associated with field changes:

a) chronic angle closure glaucoma

b) injury of the lateral jeniculate body

c) retinitis pigmentosa

d) ocular hypertension

16. You cannot examine the retinal details by:

a) direct ophthalmoscopy

b) indirect ophthalmoscopy

c) retinoscopy

d) slit lamp

17. If keratometry revealed a vertical corneal power of 46 diopters and a horizontal corneal power of 45 diopters while retinoscopy showed that the patient is emmetropic. The most probable diagnosis is:

a) irregular astigmatism

b) diabetes mellitus

c) lenticular astigmatism

d) pseudophakia

18. All of the following statements about extraocular muscles are true except:

a) the superiors are always intortors

b) the are supplied by the third, fourth and sixth cranial nerves

c) the inferiors are always depressors

d) they become stronger after resection

19. You can have an idea about visual acuity by:

a) Ishihara charts

b) preferential looking

c) retinoscopy

d) Maddox rod

20. A 70-year old woman complains of chronic tearing and discharge. Irrigation of the lower canaliculus produces a mucopurulent regurgitation from the upper canaliculus after distending the lacrimal sac. Which of the following statements is true?

a) Jones one testing will reveal dye in the nose

b) there is probably a common canalicular obstruction

c) this condition is usually cured permanently by antibiotics

d) DCR is the treatment of choice

21. A patient complains of a sudden onset of double vision when looking to the right. A probable diagnosis is:

a) right medial rectus paralysis

b) left orbital floor fracture

c) right recurrent pterygium

d) right total third nerve palsy

22. Fluorescein does not offer help to diagnose:

a) corneal ulcers

b) leaking phacoemulsification incision

c) nasolacrimal duct obstruction

d) rhegmatogenous retinal detachment

23. The following statement about visual impairment caused by cataract is false:

a) "second sight" is caused by lenticular myopia and improves near vision

b) mild posterior subcapsular cataracts never cause visual symptoms

c) nuclear cataract impairs reading more than cortical cataract

d) cataract can cause polyopia

24. All of the following tests are useful in evaluating a patient with a retained iron intraocular foreign body except:

a) ultrasonography

b) CT scan

c) MRI

d) indirect ophthalmoscopy

25. Indications for lens removal include all but one of the following:

a) phacomorphic glaucoma

b) phacoantigenic uveitis

c) anterior dislocation of the lens

d) posterior dislocation of the lens

26. A 20-year old man has a pair of glasses; one is plus two in both eyes for distance and the other is plus five in both eyes for reading. The most probable diagnosis of his refractive condition is:

a) hyperopia with presbyopia

b) hyperopia

c) pseudophakia

d) emmetropia with presbyopia

27. The following conditions can lead to enophthalmos except:

a) trauma

b) Horner's syndrome

c) rhabdomyosarcoma

d) senility

28. The most important differentiating manifestation between acute iridocyclitis and acute angle closure glaucoma is:

               a) circum-corneal redness

b) diminution of visual acuity

c) size of the pupil 

d) age of onset

29. All of the following statements are true about tractional retinal detachment except:

a) it may be caused by trauma                  

b) the treatment is always medical c) there is always a pathology in the vitreous           

d) diabetes is the most common cause

30. All of the following conditions can lead to optic atrophy except:

a) severe anemia                           

b) intracranial tumors       

c) multiple sclerosis                            

d) age-related macular degeneration

31. In retinitis pigmentosa:

a) ultrasonography is of a great help in the diagnosis                                     

b) visual acuity usually diminishes due to secondary optic atrophy         

c) it most commonly leads to symptoms after the age of 60

d) it may lead to complicated cataract

32. Retinoblastoma can be managed by all of the following except:

a) enucleation

b) evisceration        

c) exenteration                                     

d) cryotherapy

33. The following statement about diabetes mellitus is false:

a) it can be complicated by strabismus        

b) the ophthalmic complications are cured by blood sugar reduction

c) its effect on the retina is cumulative

d) phacoemulsification is preferred to extracapsular cataract extraction in a diabetic

34. The cornea receives laser in all of the following procedures except:

a) PRK                                

b) LASIK    

c) PRP                                                 

d) PTK

35. A refractive error of minus two in the vertical meridian and minus three in the horizontal meridian can be corrected by:

a) sphere minus three     

b) cylinder minus one at axis 90 

c) sphere minus two and cylinder minus one at axis 180

d) LASIK

36. The following statement is false regarding total vitreous hemorrhage:

a) there is diminution of visual acuity       

b) ultrasonography is important for diagnosis    

c) retinoscopy shows a bright red reflex

d) most cases are due to proliferative diabetic retinopathy   

37. All of the following conditions can result in amblyopia except:

a) congenital cataract of the right eye

b) alternating esotropia

c) left total congenital ptosis

d) cigar smoking

38. In regular astigmatism, light rays focus into:

a) multiple points

b) a focal line in front of or behind the retina

c) two focal lines

d) a focal line perpendicular to the retina

39. Iridodonesis is seen in all of the following conditions except:

a) aphakia

b) shrunken hyper mature cataract

c) subluxated lens

d) iridodialysis

40. Horner's syndrome is characterized by all of the following except:

a) miosis

b) widened palpebral fissure

c) slight enophthalmos

d) unilateral absence of sweating

41. The following condition does not cause exposure keratitis:

a) facial nerve palsy

b) proptosis

c) Grave's disease

d) levator muscle palsy

42. The following are the clinical presentations of herpes simplex keratitis except:

a) superficial punctate keratitis

b) dendritic keratitis

c) central single ulcer with satellite lesions

d) disciform keratitis

43. Reasons to use atropine in acute iridocyclitis does not include that it:

a) dilates the pupil and thus breaks any recent synechiae

b) paralyses the ciliary muscle and thus gives rest to the ciliary body

c) prevents the formation of synechiae

d) keeps the IOP at normal by opening the canal of Schlemm

44. Band shaped keratopathy is seen in the:

a) upper part of the cornea

b) interpalpebral part of the cornea

c) lower part of the cornea

d) peripheral parts of the cornea

45. The myopic change in the refractive state of the eye in nuclear sclerosis can be attributed to:

a) increase in the curvature of the lens

b) anterior displacement of the iris lens diaphragm

c) increase in the refractive index of the nucleus

d) all of the above

46. Pars plana vitrectomy is not indicated in:

a) long standing vitreous hemorrhage

b) tractional retinal detachment

c) central serous retinopathy

d) intraocular foreign body

47. A mydriatic drug in a patient with shallow anterior chamber is dangerous because it can:

a) cause open angle glaucoma

b) precipitate an attack of angle closure glaucoma

c) cause glaucoma inversus

d) cause all of the above

48. The following are signs of retrobulbar hemorrhage except:

               a) proptosis

               b) chemosis

               c) miosis

               d) restriction of extraocular movements

49. In acute angle closure glaucoma, the choice of surgery between peripheral iridectomy or filtering operation is decided by:

a) level of IOP

b) indirect ophthalmoscopy

c) gonioscopy

d) the condition of the other eye

50. Pupillary light reflex is affected in all of the following except:

a) occipital lobe lesions

b) optic tract lesions

c) optic chiasm lesions

d) oculomotor nerve lesions

nourhanabdelghany

يمكنك التعليق بدون تسجيل وفى النهايه اتمنى الا تحرمونى من تعليقاتك

exam 1 mcq

1-Regarding the development of the eye:

a.      Corneal endothelium develops from surface ectoderm

b.      The lens develops from endoderm

c.      The retinal pigment epithelium develops from a different origin than the neurosensory retina

d.      The crystalline lens is vascular during early development

...

2.      All is true about the Levator Palpebrae Superioris EXCEPT:

a.      It inserts in the upper third of the upper tarsus

b.      Main action is elevation of the upper lid

c.      Is supplied by the inferior division of the oculomotor nerve

d.      Its insertion in the skin is deficient in Asian population

3.      In Senile ptosis :

a.      Is due to absence of insertion of the levator aponeurosis into the upper tarsus

b.      Shows an evident upper lid skin crease in contrast to congenital cases

c.      In severe cases a frontalis suspension surgery can be the choice

d.      The degree of ptosis can be measured by the margin reflex distance

4.      Basal cell carcinoma of the lids:

a.      Is commonest in the upper lid and outer canthus

b.      Is less common than squamous cell carcinoma of the lids

c.      Is kept under observation until growth is documented

d.      Histopathology shows pallisading of the cells around the outer edge of the tumor

5.      Epidemic keratoconjunctivitis:

a.      Is caused by adenovirus 3,4 and 7

b.      The cornea may show deep stromal  infiltrates

c.      May be complicated by permanent visual loss

d.      Corneal infiltrates, if present, do not affect the visual acuity

6.      In a herpetic corneal ulcer

a.      Recurrence is uncommon

b.      The virus remains dormant in the ciliary ganglion

c.      Is treated both with topical as well as systemic antivirals

d.      Can lead to perforation and secondary glaucoma

7.       A Maddox rod is placed in front of the left eye of a patient with the streaks oriented vertically while fixing on a distant white light. The patient reports seeing a horizontal red line in front of the left eye and above the white light. The condition may be:

a.      Right hyperdeviation

b.      Left hyperdeviation

c.      Left hypodeviation

d.      Right cyclotropia

8.      The white line in the lid margin represents:

a.      The lash line

b.      The submuscular space

c.      Orifices of the Meibomian glands

d.      Posterior lid margin

9.      A pin hole test:

a.      Aids in differentiating macular affections from optic nerve lesions

b.      Can give a rough idea about the visual acuity

c.      Improves vision in uncorrected myopic eyes

d.      Is used before cataract surgery to test for potential visual gain after surgery

10.   In the event of a lacrimal sac swelling:

a.      It presents mainly above the medial palpebral ligament

b.      A DCG is used in all such cases

c.      DCR is the treatment of choice in all cases

d.      A positive regurge of mucopus mostly indicates an infective condition

11.   In a 7 years old male child presents to an ophthalmologist for evaluation of the  recent occurrence of a right squint associated with headache::

a.      The most common type of deviation is a right exotropia

b.      Fundus examination is a routine in such cases

c.      A brain MRI or a CT is not routinely done

d.      Retinoblastoma should be considered in such cases

12.   The following diagram depicts the findings recorded on retinoscopy of the right eye of a patient done at 66 cm with the working distance considered in the figure: 

                                                        -3

                                                                   -4

a.      The patient has an astigmatism with the rule

b.      The amount considered for the distance is 1.0 Diopter

c.      The final prescription provided there is no cycloplegic used is Sph -4 Cyl -1 Axis 1800

d.      The final prescription provided there is no cycloplegic installed is Sph -3 Cyl -1 Axis 90o

13.   Regarding Congenital cataract:

a.      Presents always at birth

b.      Unilateral cases have poorer outcome regarding binocular vision than bilateral cases

c.      Installing an IOL of + 19D renders the child emmetropic if surgery is done at 2 years of age

d.      The posterior capsule has lesser chances to opacify than in adult eyes

14.   In an eye with Primary Open Angle Glaucoma:

a.      The first visual field defect is a central scotoma

b.      Beta blockers are prescribed after medical consultation

c.      The optic disc changes include primarily arterio – venous changes on the disc edge

d.      Surgery is the first line in eyes with documented visual field changes

15.   In Diabetic Retinopathy:

a.      Fluorescein Angiography should be the primary tool in the management of macular edema

b.      Panretinal photocoagulation is reserved for eyes showing preretinal haemorrhage

c.      Macular edema can be aggravated if cataract surgery is done in such eyes

d.      On Fluorescein Angiography, blocked fluorescence only means the presence of retinal haemorrhages

16.   In case of orbital cellulitis:

a.      Is caused by frontal sinusitis in children

b.      Extraocular muscles are freely acting in most directions

c.      Level of consciousness is one of the important parameters to be watched for in such cases

d.      Systemic antibiotics should be halted until the result of conjunctival cultures arrive

17.   Horner’s Syndrome:

a.      Is caused by a lesion in the ciliary ganglion

b.      Hypochromia of the iris is noted in the fellow eye

c.      Can be caused by a lesion in the vicinity of the Internal Carotid Artery

d.      Shows anisocoria more in bright light

18.   In pupil sparing complete third cranial nerve palsy:

a.      Shows ptosis in 20% of cases

b.      MRI is a routine in such cases

c.      Should be operated upon during the first six months to alleviate diplopia

d.      A systemic workup is mandatory

19.   Concerning the extraocular muscles:

a.      The superior rectus causes elevation in adduction

b.      The inferior oblique is an extortor

c.      The inferior oblique is supplied by the fourth cranial nerve from the ipsilateral side

d.      The lateral rectus inserts closer to the limbus than the medial rectus

20.   The most common intraocular tumor in an adult is

a.      Malignant melanoma of the choroid

b.      Metastatic carcinoma

c.      rhabdomyosarcoma

d.      pleocytoma

21.   Uniocular diplopia is seen in all of the following EXCEPT:

a.      Sublaxated lens

b.      Iridodialysis

c.      Third cranial nerve palsy

d.      Incipient cataract

22.   In phacomorphic glaucoma:

a.      The lens can show immature or mature opacity

b.      Is treated mainly by removal of the crystalline lens without Intraocular lens insertion

c.      Is due primarily to a angle block

d.      Reducing the intraocular pressure should precede any surgical intervention

23.   In a patient with hyphema

a.      Should be hospitalized until the blood clears

b.      Intraocular pressure elevation is more common in sicklers

c.      Blood staining of the cornea is a common complication

d.      Miotics should be installed together with complete bed rest

24.   A left homonymous hemianopia may be caused by which of the following:

a.      A lesion of the optic chiasm

b.      A lesion of the right occipital lobe

c.      An attack of migraine

d.      Occlusion of the anterior cerebral artery

25.   In Giant Papillary conjunctivitis

a.      Could be caused by allergy to prolonged exposure to contact lens material

b.      Presents as giant rounded topped papillae of the upper tarsal conjunctiva

c.      Corticosteroids drops should only be used after other measures fail

d.      In contact lens wearers, the main problem is with the excessive movement of the lens when looking up

26.   In an eye with a pterygium:

a.      There is flattening of the vertical meridian more than the horizontal

b.      An incision for its removal should be placed anterior to the head by a few millimeters

c.      Chances of recurrence are more with a conjunctival autograft than with bare sclera technique

d.      Advancement pattern  of a fibrous pterygium is similar to that of a fleshy one

27.   In Ocular injuries:

a.      Plain X ray is the least investigation ordered in such cases

b.      Sympathetic ophthalmia is feared in cases where there extensive iris injury

c.      Pure cupper causes sunflower cataract

d.      Iron intraocular foreign body enters into chemical combination with cell proteins

28.   In a case of keratoconus:

a.      The apex of the cone is mostly placed inferonasally

b.      Minimal amount of conus can be diagnosed by slit lamp biomicroscopy

c.      Keratoplasty is the treatment of choice in cases of hydrops or opaque cornea

d.      Keratometry may show a reading of 38D and 40D in some cases

29.   Legal blindness according to WHO in relation to best corrected visual acuity (BCVA) is:

a.      A BCVA of <  3 / 60 in the worse eye

b.      A BCVA of > 6 / 60 in the better eye

c.      A BCVA of < 3 / 60 in the better eye

d.      A BCVA of < 6 / 60 in the worse eye

30.   Adhesion between the bulbar and palpebral conjunctiva is called s:

a.      Epiblepharon

b.      Ankyloblepharon

c.      Symblepharon

d.      Anterior synechia

31.   In a case with retinitis pigmentosa

a.      Autosomal dominant inheritance carries the worst visual prognosis

b.      The field defect present is a midperipheral ring scotoma

c.      Attenuated retinal vessels is present in 20% of eyes

d.      Genetic councelling is of no value in nonconsanguinous marriages

32.   In concussion cataract fine tears in the lens cap­sule occur at:

a.      Anterior pole of the lens.

b.      The periphery of the lens.

c.      The equator of the lens.

d.      Posterior pole of the lens.

33.   Assessment of visual acuity in a two-year old child can be obtained by:

a.      Visually-evoked potential.

b.      Preferential looking.

c.      Snellen’s distant test type.

d.      Opticokinetic nystagmus.

34.   The thickness of the macula in diabetic macular oedema can be measured by:

a.      Optical Coherence Tomography

b.      Topography

c.      Fundus Fluorescein Angiography

d.      Three dimensional Ultrasonography

35.   Enophthalmos is seen in:

a.      Orbital tumours

b.      Orbital hemorrhage.      

c.      Fracture of orbital floor.                             

d.      Myopia.

36.   All of the following manifestations can be seen in vitamin A deficiency EXCEPT:

a.      Bitot’s spots

b.      Corneal ulceration

c.      Corneal xerosis

d.      Corneal hyposthesia.

37.   Treatment of central retinal artery occlusion includes all of the following EXCEPT:

a.      Digital massage

b.      Paracentesis

c.      Retrobulbar Timolol injection

d.      CO2  inhalation

38.   The pupil in an acute attack of angle closure glaucoma is:

a.      Miotic

b.      Horizontally ovoid

c.      Verically ovoid

d.      Festooned

39.   Manifestations of paralytic squint include all of the following EXCEPT:

a.      False projection

b.      A primary angle of deviation which is more than the secondary angle

c.      Head tilt

d.      Diplopia

40.   The following are true about atropine eye drops EXCEPT:

a.      Very potent mydriatic cycloplegic agent.

b.      Usually used in children below 6 years of age safely.

c.      May lead to skin flushing.

d.      The effect usually fades after 2 weeks.

41.   In Direct Ophthalmoscopy:

a.      The fundus is viewed at a distance of 50 cm

b.      The size of the optic disc measures  around 22.5 mm in diameter

c.      Binocularity is minimal with such technique

d.      Far periphery of the retina is better examined with this method rather than with indirect ophthalmoscopy

42.   Concerning the corneal light reflex:

a.      Ideally is placed in the center of each cornea

b.      The presence of the reflex on the temporal limbus signifies an exodeviation

c.      Is an integral part of the cover uncover test

d.      Each mm displacement from the center denotes 4.50 of deviation

43.   Of the following causes of secondary glaucoma, which is most resistant to treatment:

a.      Phacolytic glaucoma

b.      Neovascular glaucoma

c.      Steroid induced glaucoma

d.      Pigmentary glaucoma

Q 44 & 45 A 45 years old male patient has been struck on his eye by an alleged foreign body while hammering a piece of metal.

44.   The first intervention with the case should be:

a.      Admit the patient and prepare for a detailed examination in the operating room

b.      Ask for an urgent MRI

c.      Examine the patient on the slit lamp for a probable wound of entry

d.      Prescribe some antibiotic drops and discharge him from the clinic

45.   In the event that an intraocular foreign body is found:

a.      Leave this foreign body alone provided its size does not exceed 1 mm

b.      Arrange for a vitrectomy procedure and remove the foreign body with a forceps

c.      If there is a concomitant traumatic cataract do the cataract surgery first then remove the foreign body later

d.      If there is concomitant intraocular infection, start intensive systemic antibiotics

46.   A patient comes complaining that for the last 3 months he changed two pairs of reading glasses, he denies being diabetic and carries the lab investigations to prove his statement

a.      The patient may have starting cortical cataract

b.      He may be a case of open angle glaucoma with central field changes disturbing his reading abilities

c.      There could be a paracentral corneal leucoma which has increased in intensity

d.      The patient may be on antihypertensive medications

47.   All of the following are causes of clarity of the cornea EXCEPT:

a.      A non keratinized surface epithelium

b.      A low water content of the stroma

c.      Myelinated corneal nerves

d.      A regular arrangement of the corneal lamellae

48.   In a child with leucocoria:

a.      Retinoblastoma should be on top of you differential diagnosis list

b.      Fundus examination is mandatory in all cases

c.      Enucleation is the first line of treatment is any case to obtain a histopathological examination

d.      If an ultrasonography shows a calcified mass this would rule out retinoblastoma

49.   In a case of thyroid orbitopathy

a.      The condition is related to the thyroid function status

b.      The involvement of the extraocular muscles is manily in the tendinous parts

c.      The most extraocular muscles to get involved are the medial and inferior recti

d.      Continuous monitoring of  the intraocular pressure is of prime importance in such cases

50.   In Congenital Glaucoma:

a.      Is more common in females

b.      Is unilateral in 35% of cases

c.      Axial length can increase in untreated eyes

d.      Optic disc cupping occurs later than in eyes with open angle glaucoma